TCS TALENT TEST 003

TCS  TALENT TEST  003

 

INSTRUCTIONS

Please read the following instructions and understand before starting to answer the TCS Talent Test.

DO NOT start answering until you are told to do so.

The TCS Talent Test comprises THREE PARTS

                        PART I           -           Verbal Reasoning

                        PART II          -           Quantitative / Logical Reasoning

                        PART III        -           Critical Reasoning

TOTAL DURATION FOR THE TEST IS TWO HOURS.

Both SPEED and ACCURACY are important.  Try to answer all questions -  but do not spend too much time on any one question if you have difficulty in answering it.

Write your answers against the Correct Question Numbers in the answer booklet separately provided.  For example, if you are not attempting Q12, write the answer to Q13 correctly at the assigned place.  If by mistake, you write the answer to Q13 against Q12, everything from there onwards will go wrong and we can not help you.

 

Write the following on your Answer booklet:

1.    Copy  No. of the Question booklet printed at the top right corner of                 the       cover page

2.    Alphabetic symbol printed inside the hexagon on the left margin of                  the       Question booklet cover page

3.    Your name

4.    The Admit Card Id

DO NOT WRITE OR MARK anything on the Question booklet.  Doing so will disqualify you from the test.

Use the blank sheets attached to the Answer booklet for any rough work / calculations etc.  DO NOT detach these working sheets from the answer booklet.  Doing so will disqualify you from the test.

PLEASE WAIT TILL YOU ARE TOLD TO TURN TO THE NEXT PAGE.

PART I

For each of the words in Capital letters, choose from among the answers, the word that is closest in meaning:

(1)   DEFAULT

(A) failure to act   (B)tendency to err    (C)desire to remedy  (D)debt    (E)misunderstanding

(2)   DEFECTION

(A) determination      (B)desertion       (C)invitation      (D)affection              (E)reservation

(3)   DEFILE

(A) manicure      (B)ride       (C)pollute      (D)assemble           (E)order

(4)   DEGRADED

(A) surprise      (B)lowered       (C)ascended      (D) learned                (E)prejudged

(5)   DELETERIOUS

(A) delaying     (B)experimental       (C)harmful      (D)graduating     (E)glorious

(6)   DELUGE

(A) confusion      (B)deception       (C)flood      (D)mountain             (E)weapon

(7)   DENIGRATE

(A) refuse      (B)blacken       (C)terrify      (D)admit               (E)review

(8)   DENOUMENT

(A) action      (B)scenery       (C)resort      (D)character           (E)solution

(9)   DEPRAVITY

(A) wickedness     (B) sadness  (C)heaviness    (D)tidiness                 (E)seriousness

(10)           DERANGED

(A) insane      (B)systematic       (C)neighbourly      (D)alphabetical                (E)surrounded

For each of the words in Capital letters, choose from among the answers, the closest word that has the opposite meaning:

(11)           HEDGE

(A) act on impulse  (B)refuse to represent      (C)stake without qualification   (D)make a foolish comment   (E)establish a connection

(12)           ABROGATE

(A) transgress  (B)signify (C)alleviate   (D)question   (E)ratify

(13)           INDUSTRY

(A) cleanliness (B) pragmatism (C) sloth  (D) promptness   (E) abasement

(14)           SPUNK

(A) success      (B)timidity      (C) growing awareness   (D) lack of intelligence   (E) loss of prestige

(15)           SAGE

(A) zealot  (B)miser  (C)braggart   (D)fool   (E)tyrant

(16)           ADMONITION

(A) premonition (B) hallucination (C) escape  (D) commendation   (E) trepidation

(17)           CHARY

(A) lugubrious (B) brash (C) indifferent   (D) graceful   (E) scornful

(18)           STUPEFY

(A) lie  (B)bend (C) enliven   (D) talk nonsense  (E) consider thoughtfully

(19)           COGENT

(A) contemplate (B) unpersuasive (C) expository   (D) stable   (E) inconceivable

(20)           FICKLE

(A) spotless     (B) industrious   (C) welcome   (D) urgent   (E)loyal

Read the following text.  The passage contains some blank spaces.  Choose the sentence from the list A – I, that best fits in each of the blank spaces.  The numbers in brackets refer to Question numbers.

Desertification in the arid United states is flagrant.______21_______. Whole river systems have dried up; others are choked with sediment washed from denuded land. Hundreds of thousands of acres of previously irrigated cropland have been abandoned to wind or weeds. ______22_________. All told, about 225 million acres of land are undergoing severe desertification.

Federal subsides encourage the exploitation of  arid land resources.____23_______. Federal disaster relief and commodity programs encourage arid land farmers to plow up natural grassland to plant crops such as wheat and, especially, cotton. _____24______. The marker, too, provides powerful incentives to exploit arid land resources beyond their carrying capacity. When commodity prices are high relative to the farmer’s or rancher’s operating costs, the return on a production enhancing investment is invariably greater than the return on conservation investment. ___25______

If the United States is, as it appears, well on its way toward overdrawing the arid land resources ____26______ when productive benefits from arid-land resources have been both realized and largely terminated.

1. Federal grazing fees that are well below the free market price encourage overgrazing of the commons
2. And when commodity prices are relatively low, arid-land ranchers and farmers often have to use all their available financial resources to stay solvent
3. Government Programs provide irrigation and water delivery system ………
4. Then the policy choice is simply to pay now for the appropriate remedies or pay far moiré later
5. Several million acres of natural grassland are eroding at unnaturally high rates as a result of cultivation or overgrazing.
6. Policies help the farmers to obtain loans for their crops
7. Groundwater supplies beneath vast stretches of land are dropping precipitously.
8. Low interest loans for irrigation and other water delivery systems encourage farmers, industry, and municipalities to mine groundwater.

 I.  It is still the case that those who ultimately benefit from affirmative action.

Of the 197 millions square miles making up the surface of the globe, 71 percent covered by the interconnecting bodies of marine water; the Pacific Ocean alone covers half of the Earth and averages nearly 14,000 feet in depth. The continents- Eurasia, Africa, North America, South America, Australia, and Antarctica- are the portions of the continental masses rising above sea level. The submerged borders of the continental masses are the continental shelves, beyond which lie the deep-sea basins.

The oceans attain their greatest depths not in their central parts, but in certain elongated furrows, or long narrow troughs called deeps. These profound troughs have a peripheral arrangement, notably around the borders of the Pacific and Indian Oceans. The position of the deeps near the continental masses suggests that the deeps, like the highest mountains, are of recent origin, since otherwise they would have been filled with waste from lands. This suggestion is strengthened by the fact that the deeps are frequently the sites of world-shaking earthquakes. For example the “tidal wave” that in April, 1946, caused widespread destruction along Pacific coasts resulted from a strong earthquake on the floor of the Aleutian Deep.

The topography of the ocean floors is none too well known, since in great areas the available soundings are hundreds or even thousands of miles apart. However, the floor of the Atlantic is becoming fairy well known as a result of special surveys since 1920. A broad, well defined ridge- the Mid –Atlantic ridge- runs north and the south between Africa and the two Americas, and numerous other major irregularities diversify the Atlantic floor. Closely spaced soundings show that many parts of the oceanic floors are as rugged as mountainous regions of the continents. Use of the recently perfected methods of echo sounding is rapidly enlarging our knowledge of submarine topography. During World War II great strides were made in mapping submarine surfaces, particularly in many parts of the vast Pacific basin.

The continents stand on the average 2870 feet-slightly more than the half a mile- above sea level. North America averages 2300 feet: Europe averages only 1150 feet; and Asia, the highest of the larger continental sub divisions, averages 3200 feet. The highest point on the globe. Mount Everest in the Himalayas, is 29,000 feet above the sea; and as the greatest known depth in the sea is over 35,000 feet, the maximum relief( that is, the difference in altitude between the lowest and highest points) exceeds 64,000 feet, or exceeds 12 miles. The continental masses and the deep-sea basins are relief features of the first order; the deeps, ridges, and volcanic cones that diversify the sea floor as well as the plains, plateaus, and mountains of the continents, are relief features of the second order. The lands are unendingly subject to a complex of activities summarized in the term erosion, which first sculptures them in great details and then tends to reduce them ultimately to sea level. The modeling of the landscape by weather, running water and other agents is apparent to the keenly observant eye and causes thinking people to speculate on what must be the final result of the ceaseless wearing down of the lands. Long before there was a science of geology, Shakespeare wrote “ the revolution of the times makes mountains level”.

(27) Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the passage?

    

(A)  Features of the Earth’s Surface.

(B)  Marine Topography

(C)  The Causes of Earthquakes.

(D)  Primary Geologic Considerations.

(E)   How to prevent Erosion.

 (28) It can be inferred from the passage that the largest ocean is the

(A)  Atlantic

(B)   Pacific

(C)   Indian

(D)  Antarctic

(E)   Arctic

(29) The “revolution of the times” as used in the final sentence means.

(A)  The passage of years

(B)   The current rebellion

(C)   The science of geology.

(D)  The action of the ocean floor

(E)   The overthrow of natural forces.

(30) According to the passage, the peripheral furrows or deeps are found.

(A)  Only in the Pacific and Indian oceans

(B)  Near earthquakes

(C)  Near the shore

(D)  In the center of the ocean

(E)   To be 14,000 feet in depths in the Pacific,

(31) The passage contains information that would answer which of the following questions?

      I.   What is the highest point on North America?

      II.  Which continental subdivision is, on the average, 1150 feet above the sea level?

      III. How deep is the deepest part of the ocean?

(A)  I only

(B)   II only

(C)   III only

(D)  I and II only

(E)   II and III only

(32) From this passage, it can be inferred that earthquakes

(A)  Occur only in the peripheral furrows.

(B)  Occurs more frequently in newly formed land or sea formations

(C)  Are a prime cause of soil erosion

(D)  Will ultimately “make mountain level”

(E)   Are caused by the weight of the water.

PART II

Q1.      Fill in the missing number in the sequence 

26        19        17        13        11        ??         8          7         

(a) 3    (b) 6   (c) 9   (d)10   (e)12

Q2.      In the following series, how many B’s are there such that each B is followed by an K next to it if the K is not followed by a S next to it.

B    K    B    S    Q    M    B    K    S    M    K    B    K    K    B    Q    M    B    B

K    Q    B    K    S    K    B    A     M   K    B    K    M

(a) 2     (b)3      (c)5      (d)4     (e)6

Q3.      If  DSPXE is coded as CROWD how will BMBSN be coded?

(a) SHEET      (b) TRIAL       (c) ALARM    (d)MIND        (e) CIGAR     

Q4.      Suppose the first and second letters in the word DESTABLISATION were interchanged, also the third and fourth letters, the fifth and sixth etc.  Print the letter that would then be the twelfth letter counting from the right.

(a) T                  (b) I                   (c) N                (d) S                (e) A

Q5.      In which number system would 1362 represent the decimal number 232?

(a) Base - 7    (b) Base - 8    (c) Base - 5    (d) Base - 6   (e) Base – 9

Q6.      What is the largest prime number that can be stored in an 7-bit word computer?

(a) 133                      (b) 119            (c) 121               (d) 127           (e) 139

Q7.      If n = 10 x 18 x 26, which of the following is NOT an integer?

           

            (a)        n / 65               (b)        n / 156             (c)        n / 90

            (d)       n / 76               (e)        n / 20

Q8.      Which of the following is a power of 4?

            a.         4148                b.         4196                c.         4198

            d.         4096                e.         4248

Pick the odd one out

Q9.      (a)        ORACLE                    (b)        SYBASE        (c)        INGRESS      

(d)       DB2                            (e)        C++ 

Q10.    (a)        UNIX                          (b)        WINDOWS NT          (c)        JAVA 

(d)       MVS                           (e)        LINUX

Q11.    The three numbers in brackets represent the angles of a triangle. Which of these does not represent a proper triangle?

(a)        (30º,71º,79º)    (b)        (60º,90º,30º)    (c)        (73º,67º,40º) 

(d)       (110º,60º,20º) (e)         (70º,55º,55º)

Q12.    The three numbers in brackets in each of the following options represents the  number of edges ,the number of vertices  and the number of faces respectively. Find out which of these represents a solid planar cube?

(a)  (4,8,6)       (b)  (8,6,12)     (c)  (8,4,6)       (d)  (6,6,6)   (e)  (12,8,6)

Q13.    Which set of data exhibits a higher Standard Deviation?

            (a)        -6, -6, -6, -6, -6, -6       (b)        6, -6, 6, -6, 6, -6   (c)   6, 0, -6, 6, 0, -6                        (d)       6, 6, 6, 6, 6, 6                      (e)        6, 6, 6, 0, 6, 6

            The three circles below represent the number of people who play CRICKET, FOOTBALL, HOCKEY.  Answer the next three questions based on the diagram

Q14.    How many more (or less) people who play HOCKEY than people who play CRICKET?

            (a)2      (b)3      (c)4      (d)5     (e) 1

Q15.    What percentage of people playing FOOTBALL also play CRICKET but not HOCKEY?

            (a)24    (b) 17.4            (c)16    (d)19   (e)21

Q16.    What percentage of total people play all three games?

            (a)2      (b)3      (c)7      (d)9     (e) 6

           

The figure on the left represents number of members in a Social Group and the figure on the right depicts profession wise distribution for 1998

 

 Members (in "00s)

Q17.    Which year has registered the maximum percentage growth in members?

(a)1998            (b)1996            (c)1994            (d)1686           (e) 1888

Q18.    What is the average members for 1995-1999?

(a) 7700           (b) 6800           (c)8800            (d)4800           (e) 7800

Q19.    If 10% of members in 1998 left the Social Group, how many fresh members were made in 1999?

            (a)4500            (b) 4900           (c)4600            (d) 4400          (e) 5400

Q20.    A hypothetical physical quantity is defined as

            (Momentum X Velocity) / ( Force X Time )

            In what fundamental units would this quantity be expressed?

            (a)Time            (b) Power        (c) Velocity     (d) Mass          (e) Distance

Q21.    A is thrice as good a workman as B and takes 10 days less to do a piece of work than B takes. The number of days taken by B to finish the work is :

            (a)30    (b)15    (c)5      (d)20   (e)10

Q22.    Which of these matrices is singular

 

                        14     6               16        24                  1     0              10     12

              A =                      B =                                        C =                 D =

                         4      3                 4           6                  1     2                3       4

(a)A     (b)B     (c)C     (d)D    (e) None

Q23.    Match the following relationships:

            (i)         Male – Boy                             (1)        Not a type of

            (ii)        Television – Conveyance        (2)        Part of

            (iii)       Square – Polygon                    (3)        A type of

            (iv)       Piston – Engine                       (4)        Superset of

            (a) i-3,ii-1,iii-4,iv-2      (b) i-4,ii-1,iii-3,iv-2      (c)i-4,ii-1,iii-2,iv-3      

(d) i-3,ii-2,iii-1,iv-4     (e) i-1,ii-4,iii-3,iv-2

Q24.    If  % stands for reciprocal and # stands for doubling what is the value of

% # % (3)  +  # % # (2)?

(a)-2     (b)3      (c) 2     (d)4     (e)5

Q25.    A sequence is defined recursively as

                        f(0) = 1;           f(1) = -1

                        f(n) = 2 * f(n-1) – 3 * f(n-2), where * stands for multiplication

            What will be the value of f(4)?

            (a)6      (b)-1    (c)1      (d)2     (e)3

Q26.    What curve best suits the following data:

           

A.    X	Y
0.99	0.00001
10.04	1.02
99.98	1.997
1000	3.0
9990	4.004

            (a) y = logn x   (b) y = log10 x  (c) y = e^x   (d) y = -log10 x  (e) y = - e^x

Q27.    A Two-dimensional array X(7,9) is stored linearly Row-wise in a computer's memory. Each element requires 4 bytes for storage of the value. If the first byte address of X(1,1) is  3000, what would be the last byte address of X(2,3)?

            (a)3127            (b)3421            (c)3047            (d)3464           (e)3545

Q28.    Of the four vectors A,B,C,D find out which pair forms an orthogonal set

      A = 5i-4j,  B = -7i+j,   C = 4i+5j,  D = i+j

      (a)AC  (b)AD  (c)BC  (d)BD  (e)AB

Q29.    Evaluate the expression

M(373,11) + R(3.4) + T(7.7) - R(5.8) where

M stands for Modulo arithmetic, R stands for Round-off operation and T stands for Truncation Operation

(a)12    (b)13    (c) 14   (d)16   (e)17

Q30.    Three independent mechanisms A,B and C have been incorporated for power saving in a plant producing respectively 40%, 20% and 10% efficiency. Assuming that they operate independently, what is the net  power efficiency achieved?

(a) 56.8%         (b) 64%           (c) 68%            (d) 59%           (e) 51%

Q31.    The hourly declination of moon for a given day is as follows:

                       

                        Hour                            Declination

                        2                                  8^o 6’ 43.5”

                        3                                  7^o 53’ 6.1”

            Find the declination of the moon at hour 4.

            (a) 8^o 22’ 13.5” (b) 7^o 56’ 54.5”  (c) 9^o 46’ 33.5”(d) 7^o16’ 12.5” (e) 7^o 39’ 28.7”

Q32.    What equation best describes the curve shown below:

 

(a)y = tan x      (b) y + 3 = x    (c)y + x = 0     (d) y = ex        (e) y = Cos x

Q33.    The temperature at Chennai is given by the function: -t²/6+4t+12 where t is the elapsed time since midnight. What is the percentage rise (or fall) in temperature between 4.00 PM and 9.00 PM?

            (a)35%             (b)39%            (c) 24%            (d) -27%          (e) -32.5%

Q34.    An aircraft takes off from A (89^o N Lat, 10^o E Long) at 2.00 AM local time to B (32^o N Lat, 70^o W Long). If the flying time is 11 hours what is the local time of landing at B?

            (a)6.40 AM     (b) 4.00 AM    (c) 7.40 AM    (d) 7.00AM     (e) 8.00AM

Q35.    Fill in the last row of the following Truth Table:

A	0	0	0	0	1	1	1	1
B	0	0	1	1	0	0	1	1
C	0	1	0	1	0	1	0	1
(A - C ) È B

Interpret the resulting bit pattern as an integer in an 8-bit computer and write the decimal value.        

            (a)57    (b)54    (c)51    (d)59   (e)56

Q36.    A file is transferred from one location to another in 'buckets'. The size of the bucket is 10 kilobytes. The bucket gets filled at the rate of 0.0001 kilobytes per millisecond. The transmission time from sender to receiver is 10 milliseconds per bucket. After the receipt of the bucket the receiver sends an acknowledgement that reaches the sender in 100 milliseconds. Assuming no error during transmission, write a formula to calculate the time taken in seconds to successfully complete the transfer of a file of size N kilobytes.

            (a) 10.11 N      (b) 11.011 N    (c) 11.01 N      (d) 10.011 N   (e)10.101 N

Q37.    The size of bucket required is given by the function P(N) = 4000 √N, where N is the volume of water. Find the percentage change in size of bucket if the volume of water is increased by 1%.

      (a) 0.5%           (b) 0.25%        (c) 0.75%         (d) 1%             (e) 2%

Q38.    An optical cable is to be run from a junction point on the bank of a river 900 meters wide to an office that is located 3000 meters downstream on the opposite bank. If the cost of laying cable under water is Rs. 5 per meter and that of laying theoverhead on land is Rs. 4 per meter, find the point downstream where the cable is to cut across the river.

      (a) 450             (b) 3900           (c) 2100           (d) 1800          (e) 2700

END OF  PART II

PART III

Read the following passages and answer questions under each passage

(1) Joe, Larry, Ned, Mary, Paul, Willy, Crystal, Albert, Bob, Frank, Ellen, and Rick all live in the same 6-floor building. There are 2 apartments per floor. No more than 2 persons live in any apartment.Some apartments may be empty.

Larry and his roommate live 2 floors above Albert and his room mate Crystal.

Joe lives alone, 3 floors below Willy and 2 floors below Ellen.

Mary lives one floor below Albert and Crystal

Ned lives three floors above the floor on which Bob and Frank have single apartments

Rick and Paul live in single apartments, 2 floors below Mary

1. Which of the following lists the persons named in the correct order, going from the bottom floor to the top?

A.    Rick, Bob, Mary, Albert, Larry, Ned

B.     Rick, Frank, Ned, Ellen, Larry, Crystal

C.     Paul, Bob, Joe, Crystal, Ned, Larry

D.    Larry, Ellen, Albert, Mary, Frank, Rick

E.     Larry, Joe, Mary, Albert, Bob, Rick

2. Which of the following pairs must live on the same floor?

I.                   Ned, Ellen

II.                Joe, Mary

III.             Albert, Larry

A.    I only

B.     III only

C.     I and II only

D.    II and III only

E.     I, II and III

3.       Rick lives on the

A.    First floor below Bob and Frank

B.     Second floor, below Joe or Albert and Crystal

C.     Third floor, above Mary and Ellen

D.    Fourth floor, opposite Albert and Crystal

E.     Sixth floor, opposite, Larry and his roommate.

4.      Joe arranges to move into an apartment two floors down, whose occupant moves into an apartment one floor up. The occupant of this apartment moves into one 3 floors up, whose occupant takes Joe’s old apartment. The new occupant of Joe’s old apartment is:

B.     Bob or Frank

C.     Ned or Ellen

D.    Mary

E.     Rick

F.      Paul

(2) Eight varsity baseball players (G,H, J, K, L, M, N, O) are to be honored at a special ceremony. Three of these players (H, M and O ) are also varsity football players.

Two of them (K and N) are also basketball players on the varsity team.

In arranging the seats it was decided that no athlete in 2 sports should be seated next to another 2 sport athlete.

1. Which of the following combinations is possible in order to have the arrangement of seat assignments as planned?

A.    HGKJ

B.     HKJL

C.     JKMN

D.    JLHK

E.     LKNJ

2. Which of the following cannot sit next to M?

A.    G

B.     J

C.     G and J

D.    K

E.     L

3.      Before all the athletes are seated, there are two vacant either side of N. Which two athletes may occupy these seats?

A.    G and K

B.     G and L

C.     J and H

D.    L and O

E.     M and J

4.      To have the proper seating arrangement, K should sit between:

A.    G and H

B.     J and M

C.     L and N

D.    J and N

E.     J and L

(3). To obtain a visa for the Republic of Nimrod, an applicant must appear in person at the Nimrodian Consulate and show a U.S. birth certificate or naturalization papers, a certificate of vaccination for swamp fever and a notarized bank statement showing a balance in excess of $ 1,000. Bank statements are available during normal business hours (Monday through Friday, 9am to 3 p.m. at most banks, which also have a notary on staff).

Vaccinations are routinely performed at Alabaster Hospital, adjacent to the Nimrodian Consulate, on Wednesday s form noon to 5 p.m. They are performed at Beryl clinic,  an hour’s travel away from the consulate, on Mondays and Thursdays from 9 am to noon and on Fridays from 4 to 5 p.m. Copies of U.S. birth certificates are issued on Mondays and Thursdays from 9 to 5 and copies of naturalization papers are issued on Tuesdays and Fridays from 9 to 5. The Nimrodian Consulate is open on Mondays, Wednesdays and Fridays and from noon to 4 p.m.

1. Which of the following can complete the entire application procedure in the shortest time?

A.    A native born U.S. citizen starting Monday

B.     A naturalized U.S. citizen starting Tuesday morning

C.     A native born U.S. citizen starting Wednesday morning

D.    A naturalized U.S. citizen starting Thursday

E.     A native born U.S. citizen starting Friday

2. If a native born U.S. citizen begins the application procedure by going for a copy of her birth certificate at noon on Thursday, the earliest she can finish will be:

A.    Friday morning

B.     Friday afternoon

C.     The following Monday afternoon

D.    The following Tuesday afternoon

E.     The following Wednesday afternoon

3. Mr. Nikto’s bank, situated in the suburbs one hour’s travel form any other office that must be visited, issues statements only Tuesdays form 4 to 5 p.m. If Mr. Nikto completes the entire application procedure within 3 hours, he is

A.    A naturalized U.S. citizen who began by getting vaccinated.

B.     A native born U.S. citizen who began by getting a bank statement

C.     A naturalized U.S. citizen who began by getting naturalization papers

D.    A native born U.S. citizen who began by getting a birth certificate

E.     A naturalized U.S. citizen who began by getting a bank statement

4. Alabaster Hospital closes because of cuts in government funding. Thereafter, a naturalized U.S. citizen who begins the application procedure at noon on Tuesday can complete it no sooner than

A.    Tuesday

B.     Wednesday

C.     Thursday

D.    Friday

E.     Monday