TCS TALENT TEST 001

TCS  TALENT TEST  001

INSTRUCTIONS

Please read the following instructions and understand before starting to answer the TCS Talent Test.

DO NOT start answering until you are told to do so.

The TCS Talent Test comprises THREE PARTS

                        PART   I         -           Verbal Reasoning

                        PART  II         -           Quantitative / Logical Reasoning

                        PART III        -           Critical Reasoning

TOTAL DURATION FOR THE TEST IS TWO HOURS.

Both SPEED and ACCURACY are important.  Try to answer all questions -  but do not spend too much time on any one question if you have difficulty in answering it.

Write your answers against the Correct Question Numbers in the answer booklet separately provided.  For example, if you are not attempting Q12, write the answer to Q13 correctly at the assigned place.  If by mistake, you write the answer to Q13 against Q12, everything from there onwards will go wrong and we can not help you.

 

Write the following on your Answer booklet:

1.    Copy  No. of the Question booklet printed at the top right corner of                 the       cover page

2.    Alphabetic symbol printed inside the hexagon on the left margin of                  the       Question booklet cover page

3.    Your name

4.    The Admit Card Id

DO NOT WRITE OR MARK anything on the Question booklet.  Doing so will disqualify you from the test.

Use the blank sheets attached to the Answer booklet for any rough work / calculations etc.  DO NOT detach these working sheets from the answer booklet.  Doing so will disqualify you from the test.

PLEASE WAIT TILL YOU ARE TOLD TO TURN TO THE NEXT PAGE.

PART I

For each of the words in Capital letters, choose from among the answers, the word that is closest in meaning:

(1)   CONJECTURE:

(A) magic  (B)guess  (C)position  (D)form  (E)place

(2)   CONNOISSEUR

(A) gourmand  (B)lover of art  (C)humidor    (D)delinquent  (E)interpreter

(3)   CONSANGUINITY

(A) kinship  (B)friendship   (C)bloodletting   (D)relief  (E)understanding

(4)   CONSENSUS

(A) general agreement  (B)project  (C)insignificance  (D)sheaf  (E)crevice

(5)   CONSTRUE

(A) explain  (B)promote  (C)reserve   (D)erect  (E)block

(6)   CONTAMINATE

(A) arrest   (B)prepare  (C)pollute  (D)beam  (E)inform

(7)   CONTENTIOUS

(A) squealing  (B)surprising   (C)quarrelsome  (D)smug   (E)creative

(8)   CONTINENCE

(A) humanity   (B)research   (C)embryology   (D)bodies of land  (E)self-restraint

(9)   CONTRABAND

(A) purpose   (B)rogue  (C)rascality  (D)difficulty   (E)smuggling

(10)           CONTRITE

(A) smart   (B)penitent   (C)restful   (D)recognized   (E)perspiring

For each of the words in Capital letters, choose from among the answers, the closest word that has the opposite meaning:

(11)    MOURNFUL

(A) informal (B) sympathetic (C) private  (D)appropriate   (E)joyous

(12)   SCAD

(A) parsimony (B)allocation  (C)dearth   (D)restraint   (E)provision

(13)   GRANDIOSE

(A) docile (B)unlikely to occur  (C)symbol and unimposing   (D)light in weight   (E)uncommunicative

(14)    ENTRENCH

(A) defy (B)oust (C)extinguish  (D)squander  (E)intercede

(15)    LACKLUSTER

(A) superficial  (B)courteous (C)vibrant   (D)complex   (E)abundant

(16)    CENSURE

(A) augment (B)irradicate (C)enthrall   (D)commend   (E)reform

(17)   TRANSIENCE

(A) slowness  (B)permanence  (C)lack of caution   (D)desire for perfection   (E)original nature

(18)    DESICCATE

(A) lengthen          (B)hollow        (C)exonerate   (D)saturate   (E)anesthetize

(19)    PROTRUSION

(A)deep recess  (B)strong dislike (C) growing scarcity  (D)illusion   (E)chaos

(20)    ENTICE

(A)repel  (B)authorize       (C) baffle  (D)misplace   (E)diminish

Read the following text.  The passage contains some blank spaces.  Choose the sentence from the list A – I, which best fit in each of the blank spaces.  The numbers in brackets refer to Question numbers.

Desertification in the arid United states is flagrant.______21_______. Whole river systems have dried up; others are choked with sediment washed from denuded land. Hundreds of thousands of acres of previously irrigated cropland have been abandoned to wind or weeds. ______22_________. All told, about 225 million acres of land are undergoing severe desertification.

Federal subsides encourage the exploitation of arid land resources.____23_______. Federal disaster relief and commodity programs encourage arid land farmers to plow up natural grassland to plant crops such as wheat and, especially, cotton. _____24______. The market, too, provides powerful incentives to exploit arid land resources beyond their carrying capacity. When commodity prices are high relative to the farmer’s or rancher’s operating costs, the return on a production enhancing investment is invariably greater than the return on conservation investment. ___25______

If the United States is, as it appears, well on its way toward overdrawing the arid land resources ____26______ when productive benefits from arid-land resources have been both realized and largely terminated.

1. Federal grazing fees that are well below the free market price encourage overgrazing of the commons
2. And when commodity prices are relatively low, arid-land ranchers and farmers often have to use all their available financial resources to stay solvent
3. Government Programs provide irrigation and water delivery system ………
4. Then the policy choice is simply to pay now for the appropriate remedies or pay far more later
5. Several million acres of natural grassland are eroding at unnaturally high rates as a result of cultivation or overgrazing.
6. Policies help the farmers to obtain loans for their crops
7. Groundwater supplies beneath vast stretches of land are dropping precipitously.
8. Low interest loans for irrigation and other water delivery systems encourage farmers, industry, and municipalities to mine groundwater.

It is still the case that those who ultimately benefit from affirmative action.

      I.    Federal subsides that are provided encourage the exploration of untapped land resources

      

The history of mammals dates back at least to the Triassic times. Development was retarded, however, until the sudden acceleration of evolutional change that occurred in the oldest Paleocene. This led in the Eocene times to an increase in average size, larger mental capacity, and special adaptations for different modes of life. In the Oligocene Epoch, there was further improvement, with appearance of some new lines extinction of others. Miocene and Pliocene time was marked by the culmination of several groups and a continued approach toward modern characters. The peak of the career of the mammals in variety and average large size was attained in the Miocene.

            The adaptation of mammals to almost all possible modes of life parallels that of the reptiles in Mesozoic times, and except for greater intelligence, the mammals do not seem to have done much better than corresponding reptilian forms. The bat is doubtlessly a better flying animal than the pterosaur, but the dolphin and whale are hardly more fish like, than the ichthyosaur. Many swift–running mammals excel any of the dinosaurs. The tyrannosaur was a more ponderous and powerful carnivore than any flesh-eating mammal, but the lion or tiger is probably more efficient and dangerous beast of prey because of a superior brain. The significant point to observe is that different branches of  mammals gradually fitted themselves to all sorts of life, grazing on the plains and able to run swiftly (horse, deer, bison), living in rivers and swamps ( hippopotamus, beaver), dwelling in trees(sloth, monkey), digging underground(mole, rodent), feeding on flesh in the forest(tiger) and on the plain (wolf), swimming in the sea(dolphin, whale, seal) and flying in the air(bat). Man is able by mechanical means to conquer the physical world and to adapt himself to almost any set of conditions.

            This adaptation produces gradual changes of form and structure. It is biologically characteristic of the youthful, plastic stage of a group. Early in its career, an animal assemblage seems to possess capacity for change, which, as the unit becomes old and fixed, disappears. The generalized types of organisms retain longest the ability to make adjustments when required, and it is from them that new, fecund stocks take origin- certainly not from any specialized end products. So, in the mammals, we witness the birth, plastic spread in many directions, increasing specialization, and in some branches the extinction, which we have learned from observation of the geologic record of life, is a characteristic of the evolution of life.

(27) Which of the following would be the most appropriate title for the passage?

    

(A)  From Dinosaur to Man

(B)  Adaptation and Extinction

(C)  The Superiority of Mammals

(D)  The Geologic Life Span

(E)   Man, Conqueror of the Physical World.

 (28) It can be inferred from the passage that the chronological order of the geologic 

      period is

     

(A)  Paleocene, Miocene, Triassic, Mesozoic

(B)  Paleocene, Triassic, Mesozoic, Miocene

(C)  Miocene, Paleocene, Triassic, Mesozoic

(D)  Mesozoic, Oligocene, Paleocene, Miocene

(E)   Mesozoic, Paleocene, Eocene, Miocene

(29) It can be inferred from the passage that the pterosaur

(A)  resembled the bat

(B)   was a Mesozoic mammal

(C)   was a flying reptile

(D)  lived  in the sea

(E)   evolved during the Miocene period

(30) According to the passage, the greatest number of forms of mammalian life are found

        in  the

(A)    Triassic period

(B)     Eocene period

(C)     Oligocene epoch

(D)    Pliocene period

(E)     Miocene period

(31) Which of the following statements, if true, would weaken the statement made by the 

      author

(A)  Tyrannosaur had been found to have  a larger brain than what was previously thought

(B)   Mammals will become extinct within the next thousand years.

(C)   Forms of flying ichthyosaurs have recently been discovered.

(D)  The tiger has been proved to be more powerful than carnivorous reptiles

(E)   Computers have been developed that can double human mental capacity

(32) It can be inferred from the passage that the evidence the author uses in discussing  

      the life of the past time periods.

    

(A)      Was developed by Charges Darwin.

(B)       Was uncovered by the author

(C)       Had been negated by more recent evidence

(D)      Was never definitely established

(E)       Is based on fossil remains.

PART II

Q1.      Fill in the missing number in the sequence 

3          5          9          ??          33       65

           (a) 16    (b) 18   (c) 17   (d) 23   (e)37              Ans(C)17

Q2.      In the following series, how many W’s are there such that each W is followed by a C next to it, if the C is not followed by a R next to it.

W  C    W    R    Q    M    W    C    R    M    C    W    C    C    W    Q    M    W   

W    C    Q    W    C    R    C    W    A     M   C    W    C    M

(a) 5     (b)6      (c)7      (d)4     (e)3                  Ans(D)4

Q3.      If CYRNFR is coded as PLEASE how will TNVA be coded?

            (a)MIND         (b) FAIL         (c) GAIN        (d) BRAVE    (e) MORE

            Ans(C)GAIN             

Q4.      Suppose the first and second letters in the word CONSTITUTIONAL were interchanged, also the third and fourth letters, the fifth and sixth etc., print the letter that would then be the twelfth letter counting from the right.

(a) T                  (b) S                  (c) N                (d) O                           (e) U

Ans(B)S

Q5.      In which number system would 1342 represent the decimal number 520?

(a) Base - 6    (b) Base - 8    (c) Base - 7    (d) Base - 5   (e) Base - 9

Q6.      What is the largest prime number that can be stored in an 8-bit word computer?

(a) 199                 (b) 251               (c) 201             (d) 233           (e) 257

Ans(B)251

Q7.      If n = 10 x 18 x 22, which of the following is NOT an integer?

           

      (a)        n / 55               (b)        n / 132             (c)        n / 45

      (d)       n / 78               (e)        n / 20

      Ans(D) n/78

Q8.      Which of the following is a power of 3?

     a.         2672                b.         2187                c.         2735

   d.         2898                e.         2414

Q9.      Pick the odd one out

            (a)        ORACLE                    (b)        UNIX              (c)        INGRESS      

(d)       DB2                            (e)       SYBASE

Ans(B) UNIX

Q10.    (a)        SMTP                          (b)        HTTP                          (c)        WAP  

(d)       SAP                             (e)        ARP

Q11.    The three numbers in brackets represent the length of the sides of a triangle. Which of these does not represent a proper triangle?

(a)        (2m, 3m, 4m)   (b)        (1m, 3m, 5m)   (c)        (3m, 4m, 5m)

(d)       (3m, 3m, 3m)     (e)     (5m, 3m, 5m)

Ans(B) (1m, 3m, 5m)  

Q12.    The three numbers in brackets in each of the following options represents the number of vertices, the number of edges and the number of faces respectively. Find out which of these represents a solid planar cube?

(a)  (4,8,6)       (b)  (8,6,12)     (c)  (8,12,6)  (d)  (6,6,6)   (e)  (12,6,8)

Q13.    Which set of data exhibits a higher Standard Deviation?

            (a)        7, 0, -7, 7, 0, -7            (b)        7, -7, 7, -7, 7, -7   (c)   -7, -7, -7, -7, -7, -7                   (d)       7, 7, 7, 7, 7, 7                      (e)        7, 7, 7, 0, 7, 7

          The three circles below represent the number of people speaking Bengali, Hindi and English. Answer the next three questions based on the diagram

Q14.    How many more (or less) people speak English than people who speak Hindi?

            (a)2      (b)3      (c)1      (d)5     (e)

6 Ans(C) 1

Q15.    What percentage of people speaking Bengali can also speak Hindi but not English?

            (a) 15   (b) 12   (c) 17.4 (d)16  (e)18

Q16.    What percentage of total people can speak all three languages?

            (a)4      (b)6      (c)5      (d)7     (e)8

The figure on the left represents status of manpower and the figure on the right depicts qualification wise distribution for 1998

 

Strength (in "00s)

                                                           

Q17.    Which year has registered the maximum percentage growth?

            (a) 1998           (b) 1994           (c) 1996           (d) 1686          (e) 1888

           

Q18.    What is the average number of people for 1995-1999?

(a) 7700           (b) 6800           (c) 4800           (d) 8800          (e) 7800

Q19     If 10% of people on the rolls in 1998 left the Company, how many fresh hires were made in 1999?

            (a) 4500           (b) 4600           (c) 5400           (d) 4400          (e) 4900

Q20.    A hypothetical physical quantity is defined as:

                                     (Force X Distance)

 /                                 (Velocity X Velocity)

            In what fundamental units would this quantity be expressed?

            (a)Time            (b) Velocity     (c) Mass           (d) Distance    (e) None         

Q21.    A can do a piece of work in 15 days and B in 20 days. With the help of C, they finish the work in 5 days. How long will it take C to finish the work?

            (a)30    (b)12    (c)10    (d)30   (e) None

Q22.    Which of these matrices is singular

 

                            12       8                 33  -5                  1     0              10     12

              A =                             B =                     C =                 D =

                            6        4                   6   -1                  1     2                3       4

            (a) A    (b) B    (c) C    (d) D   (e) None

Q23.    Match the following relationships:

            (i)         Mammal – Cow                      (1)        Not a type of

            (ii)        Basmati – Wheat                     (2)        Part of

            (iii)       Snake – Reptile                       (3)        A type of

            (iv)       Roof – Building                      (4)        Superset of

            (a) i-3,ii-1,iii-4,iv-2      (b) i-4,ii-1,iii-3,iv-2      (c)i-4,ii-1,iii-2,iv-3      

(d) i-3,ii-2,iii-1,iv-4     (e) i-1,ii-4,iii-3,iv-2

Ans(B) i-4,ii-1,iii-3,iv-2

Q24.    If $ stands for change of sign and # stands for tripling what is the value of

# $ # (7)  -  $ # $ (7)?

(a)89    (b)84    (c) -84  (d)87   (e)85

Q25.    A sequence is defined recursively as

                        f(0) = -1;          f(1) = 1

                        f(n) = f(n-1) - f(n-2)   

What will be the value of f(6)?

            (a)-2     (b)-1    (c)1      (d)2     (e)3

Q26.    What curve best suits the following data:

           

X	Y
0.99	0.00001
10.04	1.02
99.98	1.997
1000	3.0
9990	4.004

(a) y = logn x   (b) y = log10 x  (c) y = e^x   (d) y = -log10 x  (e) y = - e^x

Q27.    A Two-dimensional array X(7,9) is stored linearly row-wise in a computer's memory. Each element requires 4 bytes for storage of the value. If the first byte address of X(1,1) is  3000, what would be the last byte address of X(5, 8)?

            (a) 3225           (b)3455            (c)3175            (d)3245           (e)3155

Q28.    Of the four vectors A,B,C,D find out which pair forms an orthogonal set

      A = 2i-3j,  B = -7i+j,   C = 3i+2j,  D = i+j

      (a)AC  (b)  AD (c) BC (d) BD (e) AB

Q29.    Evaluate the expression :

M(373,7) + R(3.4) + T(7.7) - R(5.8) where

M stands for Modulo arithmetic, R stands for Round-off operation and T stands for Truncation Operation

(a)5      (b)7      (c) 6     (d)8     (e)9

Q30.    Three independent strategies A, B and C have been initiated for cost cutting in a company producing respectively 30%, 20% and 40% savings. Assuming that they operate independently, what is the net saving achieved?

            (a)58%             (b)64%            (c)66.4%          (d) 69%           (e) 54%

Q31.    The scores in the  class exams and final exams of 2 students are given as below:    

                        Class exam                  Final exam

                        3                                  1.4

                        3.5                               1.65

            Find the Class exam score of a student who has scored 6 in the Final exam.

            (a) 12.2                (b) 13           (c) 10.1           (d) 10.2          (e) 12.5

 

Q32.    What equation best describes the curve shown below:

                                              Y       

(a) x + y = 0    (b) y + 3 = x   (c) y = tan x     (d) y = Cos x   (e) y = ex

Q33.    The temperature at Kochi is given by the function: -t²/6+4t+12 where t is the elapsed time since midnight. What is the percentage rise (or fall) in temperature between 6.00 PM and 9.00 PM?

            (a)13%             (b)15%            (c)20%             (d)-25%           (e) 30%

Q34.    An aircraft takes off from A (12^o N Lat, 60^o E Long) at 2.00 AM local time to B (32^o N Lat, 60^o W Long). If the flying time is 10 hours what is the local time of landing at B?

            (a) 5.40 AM    (b) 6.40 AM    (c) 4.00 AM    (d) 7.00AM     (e) 8.00AM

Q35.    Fill in the last row of the following Truth Table:

A	0	0	0	0	1	1	1	1
B	0	0	1	1	0	0	1	1
C	0	1	0	1	0	1	0	1
( A – B ) È C

Interpret the resulting bit pattern as an integer in an 8-bit computer and write the decimal value.        

(a) 98  (b) 96 (c) 92 (d) 93 (e) 91

Q36.    A file is transferred from one location to another in 'buckets'. The size of the bucket is 10 kilobytes. The bucket gets filled at the rate of 0.0001 kilobytes per millisecond. The transmission time from sender to receiver is 10 milliseconds per bucket. After the receipt of the bucket the receiver sends an acknowledgement that reaches sender in 100 milliseconds. Assuming no error during transmission, write a formula to calculate the time taken in seconds to successfully complete the transfer of a file of size N kilobytes.

(a)11.01 N       (b)10.11 N       (c)10.011 N     (d)11.011 N    (e)10.101 N

Q37.    The memory used by a program is given by the function P(N) = 4000 √N, where N is the size of the program. Find the percentage change in memory usage if the size of the program is increased by 1%.

            (a) 0.5%           (b) 0.25%        (c) 0.75%         (d) 1%             (e) 2%

Q38.    A telephone cable is to be run from a junction point on the bank of a river 900 meters wide to an office that is located 3000 meters downstream on the opposite bank. If the cost of laying cable under water is Rs. 5 per meter and that of laying the overhead on land is Rs. 4 per meter, find the point downstream where the cable is to cut across the river.

      (a) 450             (b) 3900           (c) 2700           (d) 2100          (e) 1800

PART III

Read the following passages and answer questions under each passage

(1) For a motorist there are 3 ways of going from City A to City C. By way of a bridge the distance is 20 miles and the toll is 70 cents. A tunnel between the 2 cities is a distance of 10 miles and the toll is $ 1.00 for the vehicle and the driver and 10 cents for the passenger.

A tow-lane highway without tolls goes east for 30 miles to City B and then 20 miles in a northwest direction to city C.

1. Which of the following is the shortest route from City B to City C?

1. Directly on the toll-free highway to city C
2. The bridge
3. The tunnel
4. The tunnel or the bridge

      E.   The bridge only if traffic is heavy on the toll free highway

2. The most economical way of going from City A to City B, in terms of tolls and distance, is to use the:

1. Tunnel
2. Bridge
3. Bridge or tunnel
4. Toll free highway
5. Bridge and highway.

3. Martin usually drives form City C to City A every working day. His firm deducts a percentage of employee pay for lateness. Which factor would most probably influence his choice of the bridge or the tunnel?

A.    Whether his wife goes with him

B.     Scenic interest of each route

C.     Traffic conditions on the bridge, road and tunnel

D.    Savings of 25 cents in tolls

E.     Price of gasoline consumed in covering the 10 additional miles on the bridge.

4. In choosing between the use of the bridge and the tunnel, the chief factor(s) would be :

             I.      Traffic and road conditions

          II.      Number of passengers in the car

       III.      Location of one’s home in the center or outskirts of one of the cities.

       IV.      Desire to save 25 cents

A.                            I only

B.                             II only

C.                             II and III only

D.                            III and IV only

E.                             I and II only

(2) A project to consolidate the programs of a large university and a small college is set up. It is agreed that the representative work in small committees of three, with 2 representatives of the large university. It was also agreed that no committee be represented by faculty members of the same subject area.

The large university was represented by the following professors: J, who teaches English literature, K, who is chairman of the Mathematics Department and L who is in the Department of Natural Sciences. The small college appointed the following: M, who teaches mathematics, N, who is a Latin teacher, and O and P who teach English literature.

1. Which of the following represents a committee well composed?
1. K, L, N
2. K, L, M
3. J, K, L
4. J, O, N
5. J, K, M

2. Which of the following may serve with P?

A.    K and M

B.     K and L

C.     K and O

D.    J and K

E.     M and N

3. Which of the following must be true?

I.   If J serves on a committee, P must be assigned  to that committee.

II. If J cannot serve on a committee, then M cannot be assigned to that committee.

III. If J cannot serve on a committee, then L must serve on that committee.

A.    I only

B.     II only

C.     III only

D.    I and II only

E.     II and III only

4. If L is not available for service, which of the following must be on that committee?

A.    M and J

B.     O and J

C.     N and J

D.    N and O

E.     P and J

(3) In a certain society, there are 2 marriage groups, Red and Brown. No marriage is permitted within a group. On marriage, males become part of their wife’s group; women remain in their own group. Children belong to the same group as their parents.

Widowers and divorced males revert to the group of their birth. Marriage to more than one person at the same time and marriage to a direct descendant are forbidden.

1. A Brown female could have had:

I.                   A grandfather born Red.

II.                A grandmother born Red.

III.             Two grandfathers born Brown

A.    I only

B.     III only

C.     I and II only

D.    II and III only

E.     I, II and III only

2. A male born into the Brown group may have:

1. an uncle in either group
2. a Brown daughter
3. a Brown son
4. a son-in-law born into the Red group
5. a daughter-in-law in the Red group.

3. Which of the following is not permitted under the rules as stated?

1. A Brown male marrying his father’s sister
2. A Red female marrying her mother’s brother
3. A man born Red, who is now a widower, marrying his brother’s widow
4. A widower marrying his wife’s sister
5. A widow marrying her divorced daughter’s ex-husband.

4        If widower’s and divorced males retained the group they had upon marrying, which of the following would be permissible?

A.    A woman marrying her dead sister’s husband.

B.     A woman marrying her divorced daughter’s ex-husband

C.     A widower marrying his brother’s daughter.

D.    A woman marrying her mother’s brother, who is a widower

E.     A divorced male marrying his ex-wife’s divorced sister

END OF  PART III